100 GNM Science MCQ Assam 2026 — Chapter-Wise Biology, Physics & Chemistry Practice with Answers
📅 Updated: May 2026 | ✍️ By: MyTestSeries Editorial Team | ⏱️ Practice Time: ~20 min | 📂 Assam GNM Entrance Exam
📌 Quick Answer: What does the GNMEE Science section test?
The GNMEE Science section carries 25 marks out of 100, with 25 MCQs drawn from Class 10 SEBA/NCERT Science. Biology dominates at 55–65% of the section (approximately 14–16 questions), covering Life Processes, Reproduction, Heredity, and Control & Coordination. Chemistry contributes 20–25% (5–6 questions) — mainly Chemical Reactions, Acids/Bases, and Carbon Compounds. Physics accounts for 15–20% (4–5 questions) — primarily Electricity and Light. Scoring 20+ out of 25 is achievable for any student, including Arts stream, by mastering 6–7 key chapters. This page gives you 100 original chapter-wise MCQs with detailed explanations to help you do exactly that.
Why the Science Section Is Your Secret Scoring Opportunity in GNMEE
Most GNMEE aspirants spend the majority of their time on English — and for good reason, since it carries 50 marks. But here is something many students overlook: the Science section is the easiest 25 marks on the paper, and it is also the second tie-breaker when English marks are equal.
The questions are drawn from SEBA Class 10 Science — the same textbook you studied in school. There are no surprises, no tricky derivations, and no calculations beyond basic formulas. The MCQ format means you don't need to write explanations — you just need to recognise the correct answer. And unlike English, where nuanced grammar rules can trip you up, Science answers are either right or wrong based on direct textbook knowledge.
The student who treats Science seriously — not as an afterthought — consistently scores 20–23 out of 25, compared to the average of 15–17. That 6–8 mark difference, compounded with a strong English score, is often the difference between Rank 50 and Rank 200 on the GNMEE merit list.
🎯 Science Target Score: Aim for 21–24 out of 25 in Science. With just 6 chapters (Life Processes, Reproduction, Heredity, Control & Coordination, Acids/Bases, and Electricity), you can reliably score in this range. The 100 MCQs on this page cover all high-frequency topics — use them as your primary practice tool.
Before diving into the questions, check what topics are officially covered in the GNMEE Science section:
→ GNMEE Syllabus 2026 — Complete Science, English & Maths Guide
Science Section Breakdown: Marks, Weightage & Exam Strategy
| Subject | Approx. Questions/Year | % of Science Section | Key Chapters | Priority |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Biology | 14–16 | 55–65% | Life Processes, Reproduction, Heredity, Control & Coordination | 🔴 Highest |
| Chemistry | 5–6 | 20–25% | Acids/Bases/Salts, Chemical Reactions, Carbon Compounds | 🟠 High |
| Physics | 4–5 | 15–20% | Electricity, Light (Reflection/Refraction) | 🟡 Medium |
| TOTAL | 25 | 100% | — | — |
Strategy in one line: Master all 4 Biology chapters first (targets ~16 marks). Add Acids/Bases chemistry (5–6 marks) and Electricity physics (4–5 marks). These 6 chapters alone can deliver 20–23 marks out of 25 — every single year.
⏱️ Time Allocation Tip: In the 120-minute GNMEE paper, allocate 18–22 minutes for the Science section (25 questions). Biology questions are concept-based and take 40–50 seconds each. Physics formula questions may take 60–80 seconds. Chemistry is generally the quickest — 30–40 seconds per question. Practise with a timer from day one.
For a deeper look at which Science topics have appeared most across GNMEE papers 2020–2025, see our full analysis:
→ GNMEE Previous Year Question Paper Analysis (2020–2025)
Section A — Biology MCQs (Q 1–60)
Biology is the backbone of the GNMEE Science section — contributing 14–16 questions every year. All questions are from SEBA Class 9–10 Science textbooks. Focus on understanding processes (nutrition, respiration, reproduction), not just memorising names.
🌿 Life Processes (Q 1–15) — Appeared in all 6 GNMEE papers | ~4 questions/year
Q1. Which of the following is NOT a life process? (A) Nutrition (B) Reproduction (C) Walking (D) Excretion
✅ Answer: (C) Walking
Explanation: Life processes are essential functions that maintain life — Nutrition, Respiration, Transportation, Excretion, Reproduction, Control & Coordination, and Growth. Walking is a physical activity, not a fundamental life process. This is a definitional question common in GNMEE.
Q2. The process by which green plants make their own food using sunlight is called: (A) Respiration (B) Photosynthesis (C) Digestion (D) Transpiration
✅ Answer: (B) Photosynthesis
Explanation: Photosynthesis = CO₂ + H₂O + sunlight → Glucose + O₂. It occurs in the chloroplasts using the green pigment chlorophyll. Respiration releases energy; transpiration involves water loss through leaves.
Q3. Which organelle is known as the "powerhouse of the cell"? (A) Nucleus (B) Ribosome (C) Mitochondria (D) Chloroplast
✅ Answer: (C) Mitochondria
Explanation: Mitochondria produce ATP (energy) through cellular respiration. They are called the powerhouse of the cell. Chloroplasts are the site of photosynthesis in plant cells.
Q4. In aerobic respiration, glucose is broken down in the presence of: (A) Nitrogen (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Oxygen (D) Water
✅ Answer: (C) Oxygen
Explanation: Aerobic respiration: C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + Energy (ATP). Anaerobic respiration occurs without oxygen and produces lactic acid (in animals) or ethanol (in yeast).
Q5. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart? (A) Pulmonary artery (B) Pulmonary vein (C) Aorta (D) Vena cava
✅ Answer: (B) Pulmonary vein
Explanation: The pulmonary vein is the only vein that carries oxygenated blood — from lungs to the left atrium of the heart. The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs. This is a classic GNMEE trap question.
Q6. Which part of the nephron is responsible for filtration of blood? (A) Loop of Henle (B) Collecting duct (C) Bowman's capsule (D) Proximal convoluted tubule
✅ Answer: (C) Bowman's capsule
Explanation: The Bowman's capsule surrounds the glomerulus and is the site of ultrafiltration — blood is filtered under pressure here. The filtered liquid (glomerular filtrate) then passes through the nephron tubules.
Q7. The digestion of starch begins in which part of the human digestive system? (A) Stomach (B) Small intestine (C) Mouth (D) Large intestine
✅ Answer: (C) Mouth
Explanation: Salivary amylase (ptyalin) in the mouth begins starch digestion by breaking it into maltose. Protein digestion begins in the stomach. Fat digestion occurs in the small intestine.
Q8. Which of the following is the primary function of the large intestine? (A) Protein absorption (B) Water absorption (C) Fat digestion (D) Enzyme secretion
✅ Answer: (B) Water absorption
Explanation: The large intestine (colon) absorbs water and mineral salts from undigested food material. Most nutrient absorption occurs in the small intestine. The large intestine also houses gut bacteria.
Q9. Transpiration in plants primarily occurs through: (A) Roots (B) Stem (C) Stomata (D) Flowers
✅ Answer: (C) Stomata
Explanation: Transpiration — the evaporation of water from plant surfaces — primarily occurs through stomata (tiny pores on leaf surfaces). The opening and closing of stomata is regulated by guard cells.
Q10. Haemoglobin is found in which blood cells? (A) White blood cells (B) Platelets (C) Red blood cells (D) Plasma
✅ Answer: (C) Red blood cells
Explanation: Haemoglobin (Hb) is the iron-containing protein in Red Blood Cells (RBCs/erythrocytes) that binds oxygen for transport throughout the body. Low Hb = anaemia — directly relevant to nursing practice.
Q11. Which enzyme breaks down proteins in the stomach? (A) Amylase (B) Lipase (C) Pepsin (D) Trypsin
✅ Answer: (C) Pepsin
Explanation: Pepsin is secreted by the stomach and works in the acidic environment (HCl) to break proteins into peptides. Trypsin acts in the small intestine. Amylase breaks starch; lipase breaks fats.
Q12. The functional unit of the kidney is called: (A) Nephron (B) Neuron (C) Alveolus (D) Villus
✅ Answer: (A) Nephron
Explanation: Each kidney contains approximately 1 million nephrons — the structural and functional units responsible for filtering blood and forming urine. Neurons are nerve cells; alveoli are in the lungs; villi are in the small intestine.
Q13. Which gas is released during photosynthesis? (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Nitrogen (C) Oxygen (D) Hydrogen
✅ Answer: (C) Oxygen
Explanation: Photosynthesis splits water molecules (photolysis) and releases oxygen as a by-product: 6CO₂ + 6H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂. The oxygen comes from water, not from CO₂.
Q14. The main excretory product in humans is: (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Urea (C) Uric acid (D) Ammonia
✅ Answer: (B) Urea
Explanation: Humans are ureotelic — they excrete urea as the main nitrogenous waste product. Urea is produced in the liver from amino acid breakdown and excreted via kidneys. Uric acid is the main excretory product in birds and reptiles.
Q15. The fluid that bathes the tissues and carries nutrients from blood capillaries to cells is called: (A) Plasma (B) Serum (C) Lymph (D) Interstitial fluid
✅ Answer: (D) Interstitial fluid
Explanation: Interstitial (tissue) fluid is plasma that leaks out of capillaries into the spaces between cells, delivering nutrients and oxygen directly to cells. When it enters lymph capillaries it becomes lymph.
🌸 How Do Organisms Reproduce? (Q 16–27) — Appeared in all 6 GNMEE papers | ~3 questions/year
Q16. Which type of reproduction does NOT involve the fusion of gametes? (A) Sexual reproduction (B) Asexual reproduction (C) Cross-fertilisation (D) Pollination
✅ Answer: (B) Asexual reproduction
Explanation: Asexual reproduction does not involve gametes. It produces genetically identical offspring (clones) from a single parent. Examples: budding in Hydra, binary fission in Amoeba, spore formation in Rhizopus.
Q17. The process of reproduction in Amoeba is: (A) Budding (B) Binary fission (C) Fragmentation (D) Spore formation
✅ Answer: (B) Binary fission
Explanation: Amoeba reproduces by binary fission — the parent cell divides into two equal daughter cells. Budding occurs in Hydra and yeast. Spore formation occurs in Rhizopus (bread mould). Fragmentation occurs in Spirogyra (algae).
Q18. Fertilisation in humans takes place in the: (A) Uterus (B) Ovary (C) Fallopian tube (D) Vagina
✅ Answer: (C) Fallopian tube
Explanation: The sperm and egg (ovum) meet and fuse (fertilisation) in the Fallopian tube (oviduct). The resulting zygote then travels to the uterus and implants in the uterine wall for development.
Q19. The male reproductive organ that produces sperm is the: (A) Epididymis (B) Vas deferens (C) Testes (D) Seminal vesicle
✅ Answer: (C) Testes
Explanation: Testes (singular: testis) produce sperm (spermatogenesis) and also secrete testosterone. The epididymis stores and matures sperm; the vas deferens carries sperm out; seminal vesicles provide fluid for semen.
Q20. Which hormone maintains the uterine lining during pregnancy? (A) Oestrogen (B) Progesterone (C) Testosterone (D) Oxytocin
✅ Answer: (B) Progesterone
Explanation: Progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum (after ovulation) and maintains the uterine lining (endometrium) for implantation and sustains pregnancy. Fall in progesterone triggers menstruation. Directly relevant nursing knowledge.
Q21. The placenta provides the developing foetus with: (A) Oxygen only (B) Nutrients only (C) Oxygen, nutrients, and removes waste (D) Carbon dioxide for development
✅ Answer: (C) Oxygen, nutrients, and removes waste
Explanation: The placenta is the interface between mother and foetus. It provides oxygen and nutrients from maternal blood to foetal blood, and removes CO₂ and metabolic waste from foetal blood to maternal blood. Essential nursing knowledge.
Q22. Double fertilisation is a feature of: (A) Gymnosperms (B) Angiosperms (C) Fungi (D) Mosses
✅ Answer: (B) Angiosperms
Explanation: Double fertilisation is unique to flowering plants (angiosperms): one sperm fertilises the egg (forming zygote), while another sperm fuses with the polar nuclei (forming endosperm). Gymnosperms have single fertilisation.
Q23. In which organism does reproduction occur by budding? (A) Amoeba (B) Hydra (C) Rhizopus (D) Plasmodium
✅ Answer: (B) Hydra
Explanation: Hydra reproduces asexually by budding — a small bud grows on the parent body, develops into a new individual, and then detaches. Yeast also reproduces by budding. Amoeba = binary fission; Rhizopus = spore formation; Plasmodium = multiple fission.
Q24. The term used for the transfer of pollen from anther to stigma of the same flower is: (A) Cross-pollination (B) Self-pollination (C) Fertilisation (D) Germination
✅ Answer: (B) Self-pollination
Explanation: Self-pollination = pollen from the anther of a flower transferred to the stigma of the same flower or another flower on the same plant. Cross-pollination = pollen transferred between flowers on different plants.
Q25. The normal gestation period in humans is: (A) 6 months (B) 7 months (C) 9 months (D) 12 months
✅ Answer: (C) 9 months
Explanation: The normal human gestation period is approximately 9 months (38–40 weeks from fertilisation to birth). A baby born before 37 weeks is considered premature. This is fundamental nursing knowledge.
Q26. Vegetative propagation can be seen in: (A) Mango through seeds (B) Potato through tubers (C) Maize through pollination (D) Wheat through germination
✅ Answer: (B) Potato through tubers
Explanation: Vegetative propagation is asexual reproduction in plants using vegetative parts (roots, stems, leaves). Potato reproduces through underground stem tubers (the "eyes"). Other examples: ginger through rhizomes, onion through bulbs, Bryophyllum through leaves.
Q27. HIV is a virus that primarily attacks which cells in the human body? (A) Red blood cells (B) Platelets (C) Helper T-cells (CD4+) (D) Nerve cells
✅ Answer: (C) Helper T-cells (CD4+)
Explanation: HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) targets and destroys CD4+ T helper cells — the key cells of the immune system. Progressive destruction of these cells leads to AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome). Critical nursing knowledge for infection control.
🧬 Heredity and Evolution (Q 28–38) — Appeared in 5 of 6 papers | ~2–3 questions/year
Q28. Who is known as the "Father of Genetics"? (A) Charles Darwin (B) Gregor Mendel (C) Hugo de Vries (D) T.H. Morgan
✅ Answer: (B) Gregor Mendel
Explanation: Gregor Johann Mendel (1822–1884) is the Father of Genetics. He conducted experiments on pea plants (Pisum sativum) and formulated the laws of inheritance. Charles Darwin proposed the Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection.
Q29. In a monohybrid cross between TT (tall) and tt (dwarf) pea plants, what will be the phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation? (A) 1:1 (B) 3:1 (C) 1:2:1 (D) 9:3:3:1
✅ Answer: (B) 3:1
Explanation: F1 = all Tt (tall). F2 from Tt × Tt = 1 TT : 2 Tt : 1 tt → phenotypic ratio = 3 tall : 1 dwarf. Tall is dominant over dwarf. This is Mendel's Law of Segregation. The 9:3:3:1 ratio applies to a dihybrid cross.
Q30. The genotype Tt is described as: (A) Homozygous dominant (B) Homozygous recessive (C) Heterozygous (D) Codominant
✅ Answer: (C) Heterozygous
Explanation: Tt = two different alleles (one dominant T, one recessive t) = heterozygous. TT = homozygous dominant. tt = homozygous recessive. Heterozygous organisms show the dominant phenotype but carry the recessive allele.
Q31. Sex in humans is determined by: (A) The X chromosome only (B) The Y chromosome only (C) The combination of sex chromosomes (D) Environmental factors
✅ Answer: (C) The combination of sex chromosomes
Explanation: Females are XX; males are XY. The sex of the offspring is determined by whether the sperm carries an X or Y chromosome. The egg always contributes an X chromosome.
Q32. Sickle cell anaemia is an example of: (A) Sex-linked disease (B) Chromosomal disorder (C) Genetic (inherited) disease (D) Infectious disease
✅ Answer: (C) Genetic (inherited) disease
Explanation: Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a mutation in the haemoglobin gene — it is a genetic/inherited disease passed from parents to offspring. It is not infectious (not spread person-to-person) and not a chromosomal disorder like Down syndrome.
Q33. Evolution is the change in: (A) Individual organisms over a lifetime (B) Heritable characteristics of populations over generations (C) Size of organisms (D) Behaviour of organisms
✅ Answer: (B) Heritable characteristics of populations over generations
Explanation: Evolution refers to changes in the heritable (genetic) traits of a population over successive generations, driven by natural selection, mutation, migration, and genetic drift. It happens at the population level, not to individuals.
Q34. The theory of Natural Selection was proposed by: (A) Gregor Mendel (B) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck (C) Charles Darwin (D) Louis Pasteur
✅ Answer: (C) Charles Darwin
Explanation: Charles Darwin proposed the Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection in 1859 in his book "On the Origin of Species." The core idea: organisms with favourable traits survive and reproduce more — "survival of the fittest."
Q35. A sudden heritable change in the DNA sequence is called: (A) Variation (B) Mutation (C) Selection (D) Adaptation
✅ Answer: (B) Mutation
Explanation: A mutation is a sudden, permanent change in the DNA sequence of a gene. Mutations can be spontaneous or induced (by radiation, chemicals). They are the ultimate source of genetic variation on which natural selection acts.
Q36. Haemophilia (a blood clotting disorder) is an example of: (A) Autosomal dominant disease (B) Sex-linked recessive disease (C) Mitochondrial disease (D) Autosomal recessive disease
✅ Answer: (B) Sex-linked recessive disease
Explanation: Haemophilia is caused by a recessive gene on the X chromosome. Since males have only one X (XY), a single copy of the mutated gene causes the disease. Females (XX) need two copies to be affected — making them rare carriers. A key nursing knowledge concept.
Q37. Vestigial organs are: (A) Organs that are perfectly functional (B) Organs that are fully developed in embryos (C) Remnants of organs that were functional in ancestors (D) Newly evolved organs
✅ Answer: (C) Remnants of organs that were functional in ancestors
Explanation: Vestigial organs are reduced, non-functional remnants of structures that were useful in evolutionary ancestors. Examples in humans: appendix, coccyx (tailbone), wisdom teeth, ear-wiggling muscles. They provide evidence for evolution.
Q38. In a monohybrid cross, the allele that expresses itself in the F1 generation is called: (A) Recessive (B) Codominant (C) Dominant (D) Mutant
✅ Answer: (C) Dominant
Explanation: In a cross between two pure-breeding parents (e.g., TT × tt), the F1 generation shows only the trait of one parent — this trait is called dominant. The other trait (recessive) reappears in the F2 generation.
🧠 Control and Coordination (Q 39–48) — Appeared in 5 of 6 papers | ~2 questions/year
Q39. The basic structural and functional unit of the nervous system is the: (A) Nephron (B) Neuron (C) Synapse (D) Axon
✅ Answer: (B) Neuron
Explanation: A neuron (nerve cell) is the basic structural and functional unit of the nervous system. It consists of a cell body (soma), dendrites (receive signals), and an axon (transmits signals). The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney.
Q40. A reflex action is controlled by the: (A) Brain (B) Spinal cord (C) Cerebellum (D) Cerebrum
✅ Answer: (B) Spinal cord
Explanation: Reflex actions are automatic, rapid responses to stimuli controlled by the spinal cord — without brain involvement. The reflex arc path: Receptor → Sensory nerve → Spinal cord → Motor nerve → Effector. E.g., knee-jerk reflex, withdrawing hand from fire.
Q41. Which gland is known as the "master gland"? (A) Thyroid (B) Adrenal (C) Pituitary (D) Pancreas
✅ Answer: (C) Pituitary
Explanation: The pituitary gland (located at the base of the brain) is called the master gland because it secretes hormones that regulate other endocrine glands (thyroid, adrenal, gonads). It is controlled by the hypothalamus.
Q42. Insulin is secreted by which part of the pancreas? (A) Acinar cells (B) Alpha cells (C) Beta cells of Islets of Langerhans (D) Delta cells
✅ Answer: (C) Beta cells of Islets of Langerhans
Explanation: Insulin is produced by beta (β) cells of the Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. It lowers blood glucose levels. Alpha cells secrete glucagon (raises blood glucose). Deficiency of insulin → Diabetes mellitus. Critical nursing knowledge.
Q43. The hormone adrenaline is secreted by the: (A) Thyroid gland (B) Pituitary gland (C) Adrenal gland (D) Pancreas
✅ Answer: (C) Adrenal gland
Explanation: Adrenaline (epinephrine) is secreted by the adrenal medulla (inner part of the adrenal gland). It is the "fight or flight" hormone — increases heart rate, dilates pupils, raises blood glucose in emergency situations.
Q44. Thyroxine is a hormone that regulates: (A) Blood pressure (B) Metabolic rate (C) Blood clotting (D) Urine formation
✅ Answer: (B) Metabolic rate
Explanation: Thyroxine (T4), secreted by the thyroid gland, regulates the body's basal metabolic rate (BMR). It requires iodine for production. Deficiency = hypothyroidism (goitre); excess = hyperthyroidism. Iodised salt prevents goitre.
Q45. Phototropism in plants is the response to: (A) Gravity (B) Light (C) Touch (D) Water
✅ Answer: (B) Light
Explanation: Phototropism = growth/movement in response to light. Shoots are positively phototropic (grow towards light); roots are negatively phototropic (grow away from light). This is controlled by the plant hormone auxin (IAA).
Q46. Which part of the brain is responsible for balance and coordination of movement? (A) Medulla oblongata (B) Cerebrum (C) Cerebellum (D) Hypothalamus
✅ Answer: (C) Cerebellum
Explanation: The cerebellum (hindbrain) is responsible for motor coordination, balance, and fine movement. Cerebrum = thinking, memory, speech. Medulla oblongata = involuntary functions (heart rate, breathing). Hypothalamus = temperature regulation, hunger, thirst.
Q47. The chemical substance released at the synaptic junction between two neurons is called a: (A) Hormone (B) Neurotransmitter (C) Enzyme (D) Receptor
✅ Answer: (B) Neurotransmitter
Explanation: When a nerve impulse reaches the end of a neuron (pre-synaptic terminal), it triggers the release of neurotransmitters (e.g., acetylcholine, dopamine) into the synapse. These bind to receptors on the next neuron, passing the signal. Key pharmacology foundation.
Q48. Geotropism is a plant's growth response to: (A) Light (B) Water (C) Gravity (D) Temperature
✅ Answer: (C) Gravity
Explanation: Geotropism (gravitropism) = response to gravity. Roots are positively geotropic (grow downward). Shoots are negatively geotropic (grow upward). Hydrotropism = response to water; Thermotropism = response to temperature.
🌍 Our Environment & Natural Resources (Q 49–55) — Appeared in 4 of 6 papers
Q49. The process by which dead organic matter is broken down by decomposers into simpler inorganic substances is called: (A) Photosynthesis (B) Mineralisation (C) Decomposition (D) Fossilisation
✅ Answer: (C) Decomposition
Explanation: Decomposition = breakdown of dead organic matter (leaves, dead animals) by decomposers (bacteria, fungi) into simpler inorganic substances (CO₂, water, minerals). This recycles nutrients back into the ecosystem.
Q50. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste? (A) Plastic bags (B) Glass bottles (C) Kitchen vegetable scraps (D) Aluminium cans
✅ Answer: (C) Kitchen vegetable scraps
Explanation: Biodegradable waste = material that can be broken down by microorganisms in nature. Examples: food scraps, paper, cotton, leaves. Non-biodegradable: plastic, glass, metal, DDT — these persist in the environment for decades.
Q51. The accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain is called: (A) Eutrophication (B) Biomagnification (C) Bioaccumulation (D) Pollution
✅ Answer: (B) Biomagnification
Explanation: Biomagnification = progressive increase in the concentration of non-biodegradable substances (e.g., DDT, mercury) as they move up the food chain. Organisms at the top of the food chain accumulate the highest concentrations.
Q52. The 10% law in ecology states that energy transferred from one trophic level to the next is: (A) 10% (B) 50% (C) 90% (D) 100%
✅ Answer: (A) 10%
Explanation: According to Lindeman's 10% law, only 10% of energy at one trophic level is transferred to the next. The remaining 90% is lost as heat (respiration, movement). This is why food chains are rarely longer than 4–5 levels.
Q53. Ozone (O₃) in the stratosphere protects the earth from: (A) Infrared rays (B) Ultraviolet rays (C) X-rays (D) Gamma rays
✅ Answer: (B) Ultraviolet rays
Explanation: The stratospheric ozone layer absorbs harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun. Depletion of the ozone layer (by CFCs — chlorofluorocarbons) leads to increased UV reaching Earth, causing skin cancer and cataracts.
Q54. Chipko Movement was related to the conservation of: (A) Water (B) Wildlife (C) Forests (D) Soil
✅ Answer: (C) Forests
Explanation: The Chipko Movement (1973, Uttarakhand) involved villagers, especially women, hugging (chipko = to hug/cling) trees to prevent commercial logging. It is a landmark environmental conservation movement in India.
Q55. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy? (A) Coal (B) Petroleum (C) Natural gas (D) Solar energy
✅ Answer: (D) Solar energy
Explanation: Renewable energy sources are naturally replenished on a human timescale: solar, wind, hydro, geothermal, biomass. Coal, petroleum, and natural gas are fossil fuels — non-renewable and take millions of years to form.
🔬 Tissues (Q 56–60) — Appeared in 3 of 6 papers | ~1 question/year
Q56. Which tissue is responsible for the conduction of water in plants? (A) Phloem (B) Xylem (C) Sclerenchyma (D) Collenchyma
✅ Answer: (B) Xylem
Explanation: Xylem conducts water and dissolved minerals from roots to leaves (upward movement). Phloem conducts prepared food (sugars) from leaves to other parts of the plant (both directions). Together they form the vascular bundle.
Q57. Cardiac muscle is found in the: (A) Stomach (B) Diaphragm (C) Heart wall (D) Biceps
✅ Answer: (C) Heart wall
Explanation: Cardiac muscle (myocardium) is found only in the heart wall. It is involuntary, striated, and has intercalated discs for coordinated contraction. Biceps = skeletal (voluntary) muscle; Stomach = smooth (involuntary) muscle; Diaphragm = skeletal muscle.
Q58. Epithelial tissue functions primarily to: (A) Support organs (B) Transport substances (C) Cover surfaces and line cavities (D) Produce movement
✅ Answer: (C) Cover surfaces and line cavities
Explanation: Epithelial tissue covers body surfaces (skin), lines cavities (intestine, lungs, blood vessels), and glands. It acts as a protective barrier, selective permeable layer, and secretory surface.
Q59. The connective tissue that connects muscle to bone is called: (A) Ligament (B) Tendon (C) Cartilage (D) Fascia
✅ Answer: (B) Tendon
Explanation: Tendon = connects muscle to bone (tough, fibrous). Ligament = connects bone to bone at joints (slightly elastic). Cartilage = flexible connective tissue at joints and in ears, nose. Nurses commonly encounter these in musculoskeletal injuries.
Q60. Which type of cell division is responsible for growth and repair of body tissues? (A) Meiosis (B) Mitosis (C) Binary fission (D) Amitosis
✅ Answer: (B) Mitosis
Explanation: Mitosis produces two genetically identical daughter cells from one parent cell — used for growth, repair, and replacement of body cells. Meiosis produces four genetically diverse haploid cells — used for sexual reproduction (gamete formation).
Section B — Chemistry MCQs (Q 61–82)
Chemistry contributes approximately 5–6 questions per year in GNMEE. Focus on Acids/Bases/Salts and Chemical Reactions — these two chapters together deliver 3–4 marks every year.
⚗️ Chemical Reactions and Equations (Q 61–68) — Appeared in 5 of 6 papers
Q61. Which of the following is a combination (synthesis) reaction? (A) 2H₂O → 2H₂ + O₂ (B) CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂ (C) 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O (D) Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu
✅ Answer: (C) 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
Explanation: A combination reaction = two or more substances combine to form one new product. (A) = decomposition; (B) = thermal decomposition; (D) = displacement reaction. Only (C) involves two reactants combining into one product.
Q62. Rusting of iron is an example of: (A) Reduction reaction (B) Decomposition reaction (C) Oxidation reaction (D) Displacement reaction
✅ Answer: (C) Oxidation reaction
Explanation: Rusting = iron + oxygen + water → iron oxide (rust). Iron loses electrons (is oxidised) and combines with oxygen. The full process: 4Fe + 3O₂ + xH₂O → 2Fe₂O₃.xH₂O (rust = hydrated iron oxide).
Q63. What does a balanced chemical equation obey? (A) Law of multiple proportions (B) Law of conservation of mass (C) Boyle's Law (D) Avogadro's Law
✅ Answer: (B) Law of conservation of mass
Explanation: A balanced chemical equation has the same number of atoms of each element on both sides — obeying the Law of Conservation of Mass (Lavoisier): "Matter is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction."
Q64. In a displacement reaction, a more reactive metal displaces a: (A) Less reactive metal (B) More reactive metal (C) Non-metal (D) Any element
✅ Answer: (A) Less reactive metal
Explanation: In a displacement reaction, a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its salt solution. Example: Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu (Zinc is more reactive than copper, so it displaces copper).
Q65. Exothermic reactions are those that: (A) Absorb heat from surroundings (B) Release heat to surroundings (C) Require electricity to proceed (D) Only occur at high temperatures
✅ Answer: (B) Release heat to surroundings
Explanation: Exothermic reactions release energy (usually heat) to the surroundings — the products have less energy than the reactants. Examples: combustion, neutralisation, respiration. Endothermic reactions absorb heat: photosynthesis, electrolysis.
Q66. Which substance is called "milk of magnesia"? (A) MgCl₂ (B) Mg(OH)₂ (C) MgSO₄ (D) MgCO₃
✅ Answer: (B) Mg(OH)₂
Explanation: Milk of magnesia = magnesium hydroxide Mg(OH)₂ — a white suspension used as an antacid to neutralise excess stomach acid. Directly relevant nursing pharmacology knowledge. MgSO₄ (Epsom salt) is used as a laxative.
Q67. The reaction between an acid and a base producing salt and water is called: (A) Decomposition (B) Displacement (C) Neutralisation (D) Redox
✅ Answer: (C) Neutralisation
Explanation: Neutralisation: Acid + Base → Salt + Water. Example: HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O. The products are neutral (pH ~7). This principle underlies antacid use in medicine — a core nursing knowledge concept.
Q68. Which colour does blue litmus paper turn in an acidic solution? (A) Blue (B) Green (C) Red (D) No change
✅ Answer: (C) Red
Explanation: Blue litmus turns red in acidic solutions (pH < 7). Red litmus turns blue in basic/alkaline solutions (pH > 7). In neutral solutions (pH = 7), there is no colour change. Classic Class 10 chemistry indicator question.
🧪 Acids, Bases and Salts (Q 69–75) — Appeared in 5 of 6 papers
Q69. The pH of pure water is: (A) 0 (B) 7 (C) 14 (D) 6
✅ Answer: (B) 7
Explanation: Pure water is neutral with a pH of 7. pH scale: 0–6.9 = acidic; 7 = neutral; 7.1–14 = basic/alkaline. The human blood pH is 7.35–7.45 (slightly alkaline) — deviation causes acidosis or alkalosis, both medical emergencies.
Q70. Which acid is found in vinegar? (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Sulphuric acid (C) Acetic acid (D) Citric acid
✅ Answer: (C) Acetic acid
Explanation: Vinegar = dilute acetic acid (ethanoic acid, CH₃COOH). Citric acid is in lemon juice. HCl is in gastric juice (stomach acid). H₂SO₄ is in car batteries. These everyday acid associations are commonly tested in GNMEE.
Q71. Common salt (table salt) has the chemical formula: (A) NaOH (B) NaCl (C) Na₂CO₃ (D) NaHCO₃
✅ Answer: (B) NaCl
Explanation: Sodium chloride (NaCl) = common salt. NaOH = sodium hydroxide (caustic soda). Na₂CO₃ = washing soda. NaHCO₃ = baking soda (sodium bicarbonate — used as antacid). These are the "sodium family" of compounds commonly tested.
Q72. Which gas is produced when dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with zinc? (A) Oxygen (B) Chlorine (C) Hydrogen (D) Carbon dioxide
✅ Answer: (C) Hydrogen
Explanation: Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂↑. Hydrogen gas is produced, which burns with a "pop" sound when a burning splint is brought near. This "pop test" identifies hydrogen gas — a standard Class 10 lab experiment.
Q73. Baking soda (NaHCO₃) when heated releases: (A) Oxygen (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Hydrogen
✅ Answer: (B) Carbon dioxide
Explanation: 2NaHCO₃ → Na₂CO₃ + H₂O + CO₂. The CO₂ gas released makes bread and cakes rise during baking (acts as a leavening agent). NaHCO₃ is also used as an antacid to neutralise excess stomach acid.
Q74. Which of the following is a strong acid? (A) Acetic acid (B) Carbonic acid (C) Sulphuric acid (D) Citric acid
✅ Answer: (C) Sulphuric acid
Explanation: Strong acids fully dissociate in water: HCl, H₂SO₄, HNO₃. Weak acids partially dissociate: CH₃COOH (acetic), H₂CO₃ (carbonic), citric acid. Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄) is the "king of chemicals" — a strong, corrosive acid.
Q75. The substance used as an antacid to relieve excess acidity in the stomach is: (A) HCl (B) NaOH (C) Mg(OH)₂ (D) H₂SO₄
✅ Answer: (C) Mg(OH)₂
Explanation: Antacids are mild bases that neutralise excess HCl in the stomach. Mg(OH)₂ (milk of magnesia) and Al(OH)₃ are common antacids. NaOH is too strong and corrosive to use internally. HCl and H₂SO₄ are acids — they would worsen acidity.
🔩 Metals and Non-Metals (Q 76–79) — Appeared in 4 of 6 papers
Q76. Which metal is the best conductor of electricity? (A) Gold (B) Iron (C) Silver (D) Copper
✅ Answer: (C) Silver
Explanation: Silver is the best conductor of electricity, followed by copper, then gold. However, copper is used in electrical wiring because it is cheaper and nearly as conductive as silver. Iron is a poor conductor by comparison.
Q77. Which metal is stored under kerosene oil to prevent it from reacting with air and water? (A) Gold (B) Copper (C) Sodium (D) Iron
✅ Answer: (C) Sodium
Explanation: Sodium is an extremely reactive metal — it reacts vigorously with air (forms Na₂O) and water (forms NaOH + H₂ gas — potentially explosive). It is therefore stored under kerosene oil to prevent contact with moisture and oxygen.
Q78. The process of drawing a metal into thin wires is called: (A) Malleability (B) Ductility (C) Conductivity (D) Hardness
✅ Answer: (B) Ductility
Explanation: Ductility = property of a metal that allows it to be drawn into thin wires. Gold is the most ductile metal. Malleability = ability to be beaten into thin sheets (e.g., gold leaf). Aluminium is both malleable and ductile.
Q79. Which non-metal is a good conductor of electricity? (A) Sulphur (B) Phosphorus (C) Graphite (Carbon) (D) Iodine
✅ Answer: (C) Graphite (Carbon)
Explanation: Graphite (an allotrope of carbon) is the only non-metal that conducts electricity because its layered structure allows free movement of electrons along the layers. It is used in electrodes and pencil leads. All other non-metals are poor conductors.
🧴 Carbon and Its Compounds (Q 80–82) — Appeared in 4 of 6 papers
Q80. The simplest hydrocarbon is: (A) Ethane (B) Propane (C) Methane (D) Butane
✅ Answer: (C) Methane
Explanation: Methane (CH₄) is the simplest alkane (saturated hydrocarbon) with 1 carbon atom. It is the main component of natural gas. Homologous series: methane (C1) → ethane (C2) → propane (C3) → butane (C4).
Q81. Ethanol (alcohol) is commonly used as: (A) A fossil fuel (B) An antiseptic and solvent (C) A fertiliser (D) A building material
✅ Answer: (B) An antiseptic and solvent
Explanation: Ethanol (C₂H₅OH) is used as: (1) An antiseptic (70% ethanol kills bacteria on skin — used in hand sanitisers), (2) A solvent in medicines and perfumes, (3) A fuel (biofuel). Its antiseptic use is directly relevant to nursing practice.
Q82. The hardest natural substance is: (A) Graphite (B) Charcoal (C) Diamond (D) Fullerene
✅ Answer: (C) Diamond
Explanation: Diamond is an allotrope of carbon and the hardest natural substance known (Mohs scale = 10). Its hardness comes from a rigid 3D tetrahedral covalent lattice structure. Graphite (soft, layered), charcoal (amorphous), and fullerene are other carbon allotropes.
Section C — Physics MCQs (Q 83–100)
Physics contributes approximately 4–5 questions per year. Electricity is the highest-priority chapter (appears in all 6 recent papers). Light is the second priority.
⚡ Electricity (Q 83–91) — Appeared in 5 of 6 papers | ~2 questions/year
Q83. Ohm's Law states that V = IR. If resistance R = 5Ω and current I = 2A, what is the voltage V? (A) 2.5 V (B) 7 V (C) 10 V (D) 3 V
✅ Answer: (C) 10 V
Explanation: V = IR = 2 × 5 = 10 V. Ohm's Law: Voltage (V) = Current (I) × Resistance (R). This formula and simple numerical substitution is the most-tested Physics question type in GNMEE.
Q84. The SI unit of electric resistance is: (A) Volt (B) Ampere (C) Watt (D) Ohm
✅ Answer: (D) Ohm (Ω)
Explanation: SI units: Resistance = Ohm (Ω), Current = Ampere (A), Voltage = Volt (V), Power = Watt (W), Energy = Joule (J). Named after Georg Simon Ohm. 1 Ohm = resistance when 1 V produces a current of 1 A.
Q85. Two resistors of 4Ω each are connected in parallel. What is the total resistance? (A) 8Ω (B) 4Ω (C) 2Ω (D) 1Ω
✅ Answer: (C) 2Ω
Explanation: Parallel resistors: 1/R = 1/R₁ + 1/R₂ = 1/4 + 1/4 = 2/4 = 1/2. So R = 2Ω. Key rule: parallel combination always gives resistance LESS than either individual resistor. Series gives resistance MORE than either.
Q86. Electric power consumed by an appliance is given by: (A) P = V/I (B) P = VI (C) P = V + I (D) P = I/V
✅ Answer: (B) P = VI
Explanation: Electric Power P = VI (also P = I²R = V²/R). Power is measured in Watts (W). 1 kilowatt (kW) = 1000 W. The commercial unit of energy is the kilowatt-hour (kWh) = "one unit" of electricity on your electricity bill.
Q87. In a series circuit, what remains the same throughout all components? (A) Voltage (B) Resistance (C) Current (D) Power
✅ Answer: (C) Current
Explanation: In a series circuit, the same current flows through all components. Voltage is distributed (divides across components). In a parallel circuit, voltage remains the same across all components, while current divides.
Q88. A fuse wire is made of a material with: (A) High melting point and high resistance (B) Low melting point and high resistance (C) High melting point and low resistance (D) Low melting point and low resistance
✅ Answer: (B) Low melting point and high resistance
Explanation: A fuse wire must melt quickly (low melting point) when excess current flows, breaking the circuit. High resistance ensures it heats up quickly under excess current. Alloys of lead and tin with low melting points (~183°C) are used.
Q89. The heating effect of electric current is utilised in which device? (A) Electric fan (B) Electric motor (C) Electric iron (D) Transformer
✅ Answer: (C) Electric iron
Explanation: The heating effect of current (Joule's law: H = I²Rt) is used in: electric iron, electric heater, toaster, incandescent bulb, fuse. Electric fan and motor use the magnetic effect. Transformer uses electromagnetic induction.
Q90. What happens to resistance of a conductor when its temperature increases? (A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) Remains the same (D) First decreases then increases
✅ Answer: (B) Increases
Explanation: For metallic conductors (like copper, iron), resistance increases with temperature because higher temperature causes more atomic vibrations, increasing collisions with electrons and impeding current flow. Note: For semiconductors and insulators, the opposite is true.
Q91. One kilowatt-hour (kWh) is equal to how many joules? (A) 1,000 J (B) 3,600 J (C) 3,600,000 J (D) 36,000 J
✅ Answer: (C) 3,600,000 J (3.6 × 10⁶ J)
Explanation: 1 kWh = 1 kW × 1 hour = 1000 W × 3600 s = 3,600,000 J = 3.6 MJ. This is the commercial unit of electrical energy. One "unit" on your electricity bill = 1 kWh.
💡 Light — Reflection and Refraction (Q 92–97) — Appeared in 4 of 6 papers
Q92. The angle of reflection is always equal to the: (A) Angle of incidence (B) Angle of refraction (C) Critical angle (D) Angle of deviation
✅ Answer: (A) Angle of incidence
Explanation: The First Law of Reflection: The angle of incidence (i) = angle of reflection (r). Both angles are measured from the normal to the reflecting surface. The incident ray, reflected ray, and normal are all in the same plane.
Q93. Which mirror is used as a rear-view mirror in vehicles? (A) Concave mirror (B) Plane mirror (C) Convex mirror (D) Both concave and convex
✅ Answer: (C) Convex mirror
Explanation: Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors because they provide a wider field of view (diverge light) and always produce an upright, diminished virtual image — allowing the driver to see more of the road behind them.
Q94. Light travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium. It is: (A) Bent towards the normal (B) Bent away from the normal (C) Travels in a straight line (D) Totally reflected
✅ Answer: (B) Bent away from the normal
Explanation: Snell's Law: When light enters a rarer medium (e.g., glass → air), it speeds up and bends away from the normal (angle of refraction > angle of incidence). When entering a denser medium, it bends towards the normal.
Q95. A person suffering from myopia (short-sightedness) uses which type of lens? (A) Convex lens (B) Concave lens (C) Cylindrical lens (D) Bifocal lens
✅ Answer: (B) Concave lens
Explanation: Myopia = nearby objects clear, distant objects blurred (image forms in front of the retina). Corrected by a concave (diverging) lens to move the image back onto the retina. Hyperopia = far-sighted = corrected by convex (converging) lens.
Q96. The scattering of blue light more than red light in the atmosphere is responsible for: (A) Rainbow formation (B) Blue colour of the sky (C) Red colour at sunset (D) Both B and C
✅ Answer: (D) Both B and C
Explanation: Rayleigh scattering: shorter wavelengths (blue) scatter more than longer wavelengths (red). During the day → blue light scattered → sky appears blue. At sunrise/sunset → light travels longer path → blue scattered away → only red/orange reaches us → red sky.
Q97. Which mirror is used by doctors/dentists for examining teeth and throat? (A) Plane mirror (B) Convex mirror (C) Concave mirror (D) Cylindrical mirror
✅ Answer: (C) Concave mirror
Explanation: Concave mirrors are used by dentists and ENT doctors because they produce a magnified, upright (virtual) image when the object is within the focal length. This makes small details (teeth, throat) easier to examine. Also used in torches/searchlights to focus light.
🧲 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current (Q 98–100) — Appeared in 3 of 6 papers
Q98. The device that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy is called a: (A) Motor (B) Transformer (C) Generator (D) Capacitor
✅ Answer: (C) Generator
Explanation: Generator (dynamo) converts mechanical energy → electrical energy (using electromagnetic induction). Motor converts electrical energy → mechanical energy. Transformer changes AC voltage levels. Capacitor stores electrical charge.
Q99. Fleming's Left-Hand Rule is used to determine the direction of: (A) Magnetic field (B) Induced current (C) Force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field (D) Electric field
✅ Answer: (C) Force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field
Explanation: Fleming's Left-Hand Rule (for motors): thumb = direction of force/motion, index finger = direction of magnetic field (B), middle finger = direction of current (I). Fleming's Right-Hand Rule is used for generators (direction of induced current).
Q100. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in hospitals is based on which principle? (A) X-ray diffraction (B) Reflection of ultrasound (C) Strong magnetic fields and radio waves (D) Radioactive decay
✅ Answer: (C) Strong magnetic fields and radio waves
Explanation: MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) uses powerful magnetic fields (aligned hydrogen atoms in body) and radio waves to produce detailed internal body images. No ionising radiation (unlike X-rays). Nurses must be aware of MRI safety protocols — no metallic implants near MRI machines.
How Did You Score? — Science Performance Chart
| Your Score (out of 100) | Performance Level | GNMEE Science Projection (25 marks) | Next Action |
|---|---|---|---|
| 85–100 | 🟢 Excellent | 22–25/25 expected in exam | Maintain with 1 full section per week |
| 70–84 | 🟢 Very Good | 19–22/25 expected | Revisit weak chapters. Aim for 90+. |
| 55–69 | 🟡 Average | 15–19/25 expected | Focus on Biology (Life Processes + Reproduction) |
| 40–54 | 🟠 Below Average | 11–15/25 expected | Return to SEBA Class 10 Science textbook chapters |
| Below 40 | 🔴 Needs Urgent Focus | Below 11/25 risk | Restart with Biology Section A. 30 min daily revision needed. |
Chapter-Wise Scoring Tips for GNMEE Science
Biology — Life Processes (Target: 4 marks)
This is the single most important Science chapter in GNMEE. Focus on: the 7 life processes (nutrition, respiration, transport, excretion), enzymes (salivary amylase, pepsin, lipase), blood vessels (pulmonary vein vs artery), and the nephron. The "trick" questions here are the ones that flip expectations — like pulmonary vein carrying oxygenated blood. Know these exceptions cold.
Reproduction (Target: 3 marks)
Learn all methods of asexual reproduction with examples: binary fission (Amoeba), budding (Hydra, yeast), spore formation (Rhizopus), fragmentation (Spirogyra), vegetative propagation (potato, ginger). For human reproduction, know the hormones (progesterone, oestrogen) and their roles — this appears almost every year.
Heredity (Target: 2–3 marks)
Mendel's ratios are non-negotiable: 3:1 phenotypic in F2 monohybrid; 1:2:1 genotypic; 9:3:3:1 in dihybrid. Memorise the four dominant traits in pea plants (tall, round seed, yellow seed, purple flower). Know the sex-linked diseases (haemophilia, colour blindness) and why they affect males more.
Acids, Bases and Salts (Target: 3 marks)
Memorise the "household acids table": acetic (vinegar), citric (lemon), lactic (curd), HCl (stomach). For salts, know the Big Four: NaCl (common salt), NaHCO₃ (baking soda), Na₂CO₃ (washing soda), NaOH (caustic soda). Know their uses and pH scale position — these are direct-recall, never-changing questions.
Electricity (Target: 2 marks)
The three formulas you must know: V = IR (Ohm's Law), P = VI (Power), and the series/parallel resistance rules. For GNMEE, numerical questions in Physics never go beyond simple one-step substitution — know the formula and plug in numbers. Practice 10 numerical questions per formula to build speed.
For the complete list of books to master these chapters:
→ Best Books for Assam GNM Entrance Exam 2026 — Expert Reviews
Complete Your GNMEE 2026 Preparation Here
All resources in one place — from syllabus to seat allotment:
📗 English MCQ Practice
100 English Grammar MCQs — tenses, articles, voice, vocabulary. The 50-mark section that decides your rank.
English MCQ Practice →📊 PYQ Analysis (2020–2025)
Year-wise topic trends in all 3 sections — know exactly which Science chapters repeat.
GNMEE PYQ Analysis →📋 Complete Syllabus Guide
Official topic list for English, Science & Maths with preparation tips and chapter priorities.
GNMEE Syllabus 2026 →🏫 Government Seat Matrix
District-wise list of all 26 government nursing schools with 1,390 total seats for 2026.
GNM Seat Matrix 2026 →📖 Best Books Review
Expert-reviewed Science, English & Maths books with bilingual options for Assamese-medium students.
Best Books for GNMEE →📝 Counselling Guide 2026
Complete step-by-step counselling guide — documents, rounds, tie-breaking criteria and seat allotment.
Counselling Guide 2026 →Frequently Asked Questions — GNM Science MCQ Assam
How many marks does the Science section carry in GNMEE 2026?
The Science (General Science) section in GNMEE 2026 carries 25 marks out of a total of 100. There are 25 MCQs worth 1 mark each. There is no negative marking. Science is the second tie-breaker — if two candidates score the same total marks and the same English marks, their Science marks are compared to determine rank.
Which subject dominates the GNMEE Science section — Biology, Chemistry, or Physics?
Biology dominates the GNMEE Science section, contributing approximately 14–16 questions (55–65%) every year. Chemistry contributes 5–6 questions (20–25%) and Physics contributes 4–5 questions (15–20%). The most important Biology chapters are Life Processes, Reproduction, Heredity and Evolution, and Control & Coordination.
Can Arts stream students score well in the GNMEE Science section?
Yes. Arts stream students can score 18–22 out of 25 in Science with proper preparation. The questions are at Class 10 SEBA level — the same standard studied in school. Arts students should focus on Biology first (conceptual, no maths) and Acids/Bases in Chemistry. These two areas alone can deliver 15–17 marks without touching Physics.
What are the most important Biology chapters for GNMEE?
The most important Biology chapters for GNMEE, in order of frequency: (1) Life Processes — appeared in all 6 papers; (2) How Do Organisms Reproduce — appeared in all 6 papers; (3) Heredity and Evolution — appeared in 5 of 6 papers; (4) Control and Coordination — appeared in 5 of 6 papers. These four chapters together contribute 9–13 out of 25 marks in the Science section every year.
What is the standard of Science questions in GNMEE — Class 10 or Class 12?
The GNMEE Science section is explicitly based on Class 10 (SEBA/NCERT) standard. The official SSUHS notification states that all questions are of Class 10 standard. Students should not prepare from Class 12 Biology or Chemistry textbooks. The SEBA Class 10 Science textbook is the primary and sufficient source for GNMEE Science preparation.
Is Physics important for GNMEE Science section?
Physics contributes 4–5 questions (15–20%) in the GNMEE Science section. The Electricity chapter (Ohm's Law, series/parallel circuits, power) is the most important Physics topic and has appeared in 5 of 6 recent papers. Light (reflection, refraction, lenses) is the second priority. Students should know the basic formulas (V=IR, P=VI) and be able to do simple one-step numerical substitutions.
How many questions come from Chemistry in GNMEE?
Chemistry contributes approximately 5–6 questions per year in the GNMEE Science section. The highest-priority Chemistry chapters are Acids, Bases and Salts (appears in 5 of 6 papers) and Chemical Reactions and Equations (appears in 5 of 6 papers). Students should memorise the common acids (HCl, H₂SO₄, acetic acid), bases (NaOH, Mg(OH)₂), and salts (NaCl, NaHCO₃, Na₂CO₃) with their everyday names and uses.
Where can I take a free GNMEE Science mock test online?
MyTestSeries.in offers free daily GNMEE mock tests in the exact exam pattern — 100 questions covering English (50 marks), Science (25 marks), and Maths (25 marks). The tests are available in both English and Assamese, with instant scoring and section-wise performance analysis. No payment required to start. Visit the free mock test page at mytestseries.in to begin today.
Official & Authoritative References
- SSUHS Official Website — ssuhs.ac.in (official GNMEE notifications, syllabus PDFs, admit cards)
- SEBA Official Website — sebaonline.org (Class 10 Assam Board Science textbooks and past papers)
- NCERT Official Website — ncert.nic.in (Class 9–10 Science textbooks — free PDF download)
- Diksha Portal — diksha.gov.in (free digital SEBA & NCERT Class 10 Science textbooks)
Disclaimer: All 100 MCQs on this page are original questions created by the MyTestSeries.in editorial team based on Class 10 SEBA/NCERT Science curriculum and GNMEE exam pattern analysis. They are designed for educational preparation purposes only. For official syllabus and exam information, refer to the SSUHS official website at ssuhs.ac.in. Page last updated: May 2026.


